Help clarifying a comment please

[Oisin Feeley]

Hi all,

I'm trying to write up the "remove root login via display-manager"
thread for the Devel news beat and I'm completely stumped as to what
Alan Cox is saying in this comment:

"And my violent objection would be to forcing the creation of a local
user
account IFF the user has not selected any remote authentication scheme.
If
I've not ticked any of ldap, nis, .. etc then its a very good idea to be
extremely clear to the user that they want a non root account."
https://www.redhat.com/archives/fedora-devel-list/2007-September/msg01553.html

I'll admit to being tired, but to me the propositional logic of the
first sentence isn't borne out by the second.

The first sentence implies either:
1) force creation of local user, no remote authentication selected
2) don't force creation of local user, remote authentication selected

and his objection to these is contradicted by his second sentence which
agrees with 1).

Any thoughts?
-- 
  Oisin Feeley
  oisinfeeley at imapmail.org

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